Sunday 19 May 2013

QTP interview questions and answers



QTP interview questions and answers

1.        What are the Features & Benefits of Quick Test Pro (QTP 8.0)? - Operates stand-alone, or integrated into Mercury Business Process Testing and Mercury Quality Center. Introduces next-generation zero-configuration Keyword Driven testing technology in Quick Test Professional 8.0 allowing for fast test creation, easier maintenance, and more powerful data-driving capability. Identifies objects with Unique Smart Object Recognition, even if they change from build to build, enabling reliable unattended script execution. Collapses test documentation and test creation to a single step with Auto-documentation technology. Enables thorough validation of applications through a full complement of checkpoints.
2.       How to handle the exceptions using recovery scenario manager in QTP? - There are 4 trigger events during which a recovery scenario should be activated. A pop up window appears in an opened application during the test run: A property of an object changes its state or value, A step in the test does not run successfully, An open application fails during the test run, These triggers are considered as exceptions.You can instruct QTP to recover unexpected events or errors that occurred in your testing environment during test run. Recovery scenario manager provides a wizard that guides you through the defining recovery scenario. Recovery scenario has three steps: 1. Triggered Events 2. Recovery steps 3. Post Recovery Test-Run
3.       What is the use of Text output value in QTP? - Output values enable to view the values that the application talks during run time. When parameterized, the values change for each iteration. Thus by creating output values, we can capture the values that the application takes for each run and output them to the data table.
4.       How to use the Object spy in QTP 8.0 version? - There are two ways to Spy the objects in QTP: 1) Thru file toolbar, In the File Toolbar click on the last toolbar button (an icon showing a person with hat). 2) True Object repository Dialog, In Object repository dialog click on the button object spy. In the Object spy Dialog click on the button showing hand symbol. The pointer now changes in to a hand symbol and we have to point out the object to spy the state of the object if at all the object is not visible. or window is minimized then, hold the Ctrl button and activate the required window to and release the Ctrl button.
5.        How Does Run time data (Parameterization) is handled in QTP? - You can then enter test data into the Data Table, an integrated spreadsheet with the full functionality of Excel, to manipulate data sets and create multiple test iterations, without programming, to expand test case coverage. Data can be typed in or imported from databases, spreadsheets, or text files.
6.       What is keyword view and Expert view in QTP? - Quick Test’s Keyword Driven approach, test automation experts have full access to the underlying test and object properties, via an integrated scripting and debugging environment that is round-trip synchronized with the Keyword View. Advanced testers can view and edit their tests in the Expert View, which reveals the underlying industry-standard VBScript that Quick Test Professional automatically generates. Any changes made in the Expert View are automatically synchronized with the Keyword View.
7.        Explain about the Test Fusion Report of QTP? - Once a tester has run a test, a Test Fusion report displays all aspects of the test run: a high-level results overview, an expandable Tree View of the test specifying exactly where application failures occurred, the test data used, application screen shots for every step that highlight any discrepancies, and detailed explanations of each checkpoint pass and failure. By combining Test Fusion reports with Quick Test Professional, you can share reports across an entire QA and development team.
8.       Which environments does QTP support? - Quick Test Professional supports functional testing of all enterprise environments, including Windows, Web,..NET, Java/J2EE, SAP, Siebel, Oracle, PeopleSoft, Visual Basic, ActiveX, mainframe terminal emulators, and Web services.
9.       What is QTP? - Quick Test is a graphical interface record-playback automation tool. It is able to work with any web, java or windows client application. Quick Test enables you to test standard web objects and ActiveX controls. In addition to these environments, Quick Test Professional also enables you to test Java applets and applications and multimedia objects on Applications as well as standard Windows applications, Visual Basic 6 applications and.NET framework applications
10.     Explain QTP Testing process? - Quick Test testing process consists of 6 main phases:
11.      Create your test plan - Prior to automating there should be a detailed description of the test including the exact steps to follow, data to be input, and all items to be verified by the test. The verification information should include both data validations and existence or state verifications of objects in the application.
12.     Recording a session on your application - As you navigate through your application, Quick Test graphically displays each step you perform in the form of a collapsible icon-based test tree. A step is any user action that causes or makes a change in your site, such as clicking a link or image, or entering data in a form.
13.     Enhancing your test - Inserting checkpoints into your test lets you search for a specific value of a page, object or text string, which helps you identify whether or not your application is functioning correctly. NOTE: Checkpoints can be added to a test as you record it or after the fact via the Active Screen. It is much easier and faster to add the checkpoints during the recording process. Broadening the scope of your test by replacing fixed values with parameters lets you check how your application performs the same operations with multiple sets of data. Adding logic and conditional statements to your test enables you to add sophisticated checks to your test.
14.     Debugging your test - If changes were made to the script, you need to debug it to check that it operates smoothly and without interruption.
15.     Running your test on a new version of your application - You run a test to check the behavior of your application. While running, Quick Test connects to your application and performs each step in your test.
16.     Analyzing the test results - You examine the test results to pinpoint defects in your application.
17.     Reporting defects - As you encounter failures in the application when analyzing test results, you will create defect reports in Defect Reporting Tool.
18.     Explain the QTP Tool interface. - It contains the following key elements: Title bar, displaying the name of the currently open test, Menu bar, displaying menus of Quick Test commands, File toolbar, containing buttons to assist you in managing tests, Test toolbar, containing buttons used while creating and maintaining tests, Debug toolbar, containing buttons used while debugging tests. Note: The Debug toolbar is not displayed when you open Quick Test for the first time. You can display the Debug toolbar by choosing View — Toolbars — Debug. Action toolbar, containing buttons and a list of actions, enabling you to view the details of an individual action or the entire test flow. Note: The Action toolbar is not displayed when you open Quick Test for the first time. You can display the Action toolbar by choosing View — Toolbars — Action. If you insert a reusable or external action in a test, the Action toolbar is displayed automatically. Test pane, containing two tabs to view your test-the Tree View and the Expert View ,Test Details pane, containing the Active Screen. Data Table, containing two tabs, Global and Action, to assist you in parameterizing your test. Debug Viewer pane, containing three tabs to assist you in debugging your test-Watch Expressions, Variables, and Command. (The Debug Viewer pane can be opened only when a test run pauses at a breakpoint.) Status bar, displaying the status of the test
19.     How does QTP recognize Objects in AUT? - Quick Test stores the definitions for application objects in a file called the Object Repository. As you record your test, Quick Test will add an entry for each item you interact with. Each Object Repository entry will be identified by a logical name (determined automatically by Quick Test), and will contain a set of properties (type, name, etc) that uniquely identify each object. Each line in the Quick Test script will contain a reference to the object that you interacted with, a call to the appropriate method (set, click, check) and any parameters for that method (such as the value for a call to the set method). The references to objects in the script will all be identified by the logical name, rather than any physical, descriptive properties.
20.    What are the types of Object Repositories in QTP? - Quick Test has two types of object repositories for storing object information: shared object repositories and action object repositories. You can choose which type of object repository you want to use as the default type for new tests, and you can change the default as necessary for each new test. The object repository per-action mode is the default setting. In this mode, Quick Test automatically creates an object repository file for each action in your test so that you can create and run tests without creating, choosing, or modifying object repository files. However, if you do modify values in an action object repository, your changes do not have any effect on other actions. Therefore, if the same test object exists in more than one action and you modify an object’s property values in one action, you may need to make the same change in every action (and any test) containing the object.
21.     Explain the check points in QTP? - A checkpoint verifies that expected information is displayed in an Application while the test is running. You can add eight types of checkpoints to your test for standard web objects using QTP. A page checkpoint checks the characteristics of an Application. A text checkpoint checks that a text string is displayed in the appropriate place on an Application. An object checkpoint (Standard) checks the values of an object on an Application. An image checkpoint checks the values of an image on an Application. A table checkpoint checks information within a table on a Application. An Accessibilityy checkpoint checks the web page for Section 508 compliance. An XML checkpoint checks the contents of individual XML data files or XML documents that are part of your Web application. A database checkpoint checks the contents of databases accessed by your web site
22.    In how many ways we can add check points to an application using QTP? - We can add checkpoints while recording the application or we can add after recording is completed using Active screen (Note : To perform the second one The Active screen must be enabled while recording).
23.    How does QTP identify objects in the application? - QTP identifies the object in the application by Logical Name and Class.
24.    What is Parameterizing Tests? - When you test your application, you may want to check how it performs the same operations with multiple sets of data. For example, suppose you want to check how your application responds to ten separate sets of data. You could record ten separate tests, each with its own set of data. Alternatively, you can create a parameterized test that runs ten times: each time the test runs, it uses a different set of data.
25.    What is test object model in QTP? - The test object model is a large set of object types or classes that Quick Test uses to represent the objects in your application. Each test object class has a list of properties that can uniquely identify objects of that class and a set of relevant methods that Quick Test can record for it. A test object is an object that Quick Test creates in the test or component to represent the actual object in your application. Quick Test stores information about the object that will help it identify and check the object during the run session.
26.    What is Object Spy in QTP? - Using the Object Spy, you can view the properties of any object in an open application. You use the Object Spy pointer to point to an object. The Object Spy displays the selected object’s hierarchy tree and its properties and values in the Properties tab of the Object Spy dialog box.
27.    What is the Diff between Image check-point and Bit map Check point? - Image checkpoints enable you to check the properties of a Web image. You can check an area of a Web page or application as a bitmap. While creating a test or component, you specify the area you want to check by selecting an object. You can check an entire object or any area within an object. Quick Test captures the specified object as a bitmap, and inserts a checkpoint in the test or component. You can also choose to save only the selected area of the object with your test or component in order to save disk Space. For example, suppose you have a Web site that can display a map of a city the user specifies. The map has control keys for zooming. You can record the new map that is displayed after one click on the control key that zooms in the map. Using the bitmap checkpoint, you can check that the map zooms in correctly. You can create bitmap checkpoints for all supported testing environments (as long as the appropriate add-ins are loaded). Note: The results of bitmap checkpoints may be affected by factors such as operating system, screen resolution, and color settings.
28.    How many ways we can parameterize data in QTP? - There are four types of parameters: Test, action or component parameters enable you to use values passed from your test or component, or values from other actions in your test. Data Table parameters enable you to create a data-driven test (or action) that runs several times using the data you supply. In each repetition, or iteration, Quick Test uses a different value from the Data Table. Environment variable parameters enable you to use variable values from other sources during the run session. These may be values you supply, or values that Quick Test generates for you based on conditions and options you choose. Random number parameters enable you to insert random numbers as values in your test or component. For example, to check how your application handles small and large ticket orders, you can have Quick Test generate a random number and insert it in a number of tickets edit field.
29.    How do u do batch testing in WR & is it possible to do in QTP, if so explain? - Batch Testing in WR is nothing but running the whole test set by selecting Run Test set from the Execution Grid. The same is possible with QTP also. If our test cases are automated then by selecting Run Test set all the test scripts can be executed. In this process the Scripts get executed one by one by keeping all the remaining scripts in Waiting mode.
30.    If I give some thousand tests to execute in 2 days what do u do? - Adhoc testing is done. It Covers the least basic functionalities to verify that the system is working fine.
31.     What does it mean when a check point is in red color? what do u do? - A red color indicates failure. Here we analyze the cause for failure whether it is a Script Issue or Environment Issue or a Application issue.
32.    What is Object Spy in QTP? - Using the Object Spy, you can view the properties of any object in an open application. You use the Object Spy pointer to point to an object. The Object Spy displays the selected object’s hierarchy tree and its properties and values in the Properties tab of the Object Spy dialog box.
33.    What is the file extension of the code file & object repository file in QTP? - Code file extension is.vbs and object repository is.tsr
34.    Explain the concept of object repository & how QTP recognizes objects? - Object Repository: displays a tree of all objects in the current component or in the current action or entire test (depending on the object repository mode you selected). We can view or modify the test object description of any test object in the repository or to add new objects to the repository. Quicktest learns the default property values and determines in which test object class it fits. If it is not enough it adds assistive properties, one by one to the description until it has compiled the unique description. If no assistive properties are available, then it adds a special Ordinal identifier such as objects location on the page or in the source code.
35.    What are the properties you would use for identifying a browser & page when using descriptive programming? - Name would be another property apart from title that we can use.
36.    Give me an example where you have used a COM interface in your QTP project? - com interface appears in the scenario of front end and back end. for eg:if you r using oracle as back end and front end as VB or any language then for better compatibility we will go for an interface. of which COM will be one among those interfaces. Create object creates handle to the instance of the specified object so that we program can use the methods on the specified object. It is used for implementing Automation(as defined by Microsoft).
37.    Explain in brief about the QTP Automation Object Model. - Essentially all configuration and run functionality provided via the Quick Test interface is in some way represented in the Quick Test automation object model via objects, methods, and properties. Although a one-on-one comparison cannot always be made, most dialog boxes in Quick Test have a corresponding automation object, most options in dialog boxes can be set and/or retrieved using the corresponding object property, and most menu commands and other operations have corresponding automation methods. You can use the objects, methods, and properties exposed by the Quick Test automation object model, along with standard programming elements such as loops and conditional statements to design your program.
Hope this article helped you! Please feel free to comment!



ISTQB Sample questions with answers



1 When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake

2 Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true

3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification

4 Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist

8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access

9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

10 What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing

11 Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

12 Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

13 Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

14 Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

15 Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

16 The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet

17 When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations

19 Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis



20 Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation

a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team

23 Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

24 Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file

26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

27 Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code

28 Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

29 Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool

30 A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool

31 What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes

32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing

34 What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729

36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined

37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines

38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions

40 Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users

Question number Correct answer
1 C
2 C
3 E
4 E
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 E
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 A
30 E
31 E
32 B
33 E
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B

1.Software testing activities should start

a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle

2.Faults found by users are due to:

a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing

3.What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?

a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release

4. which of the following statements is not true

a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:

a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above

6.In which order should tests be run?

a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of

7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?

a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above

8. Which is not true-The black box tester

a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses

9. A test design technique is

a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)

a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system

11. An incident logging system

a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.

12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:

a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say

13. Coverage measurement

a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

14. When should you stop testing?

a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run


15. Which of the following is true?

a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?

a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique

17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?

1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4



18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

19 Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?

a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security

20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?

a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis

21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?

a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2




22.which of the following is the component test standard?


a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

23 which of the following statements are true?

a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.

24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down

25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?

a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing

26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:

a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test

27. Which of the following is a static test?

a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test

28. Which of the following is the odd one out?

a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional

29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:

values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected


which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?

a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22


30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?

a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21

1.d
2.b
3.d
4.c
5.d
6.a
7.c
8.b
9.a
10.a
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.b
17.c
18.c
19.a
20.c
21.b
22.d
23.c
24.a
25.b
26.d
27.a
28.d
29.c
30.b
Posted by Chandrasekhar http://way4testing.blogspot.in





1 We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

2 Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing

3 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

4 Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.

5 Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5d) 6
6 Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.

7 Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

8 In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9 Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control

1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results

a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

10 Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

11 Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

12 Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.

13 Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

14 Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage

15 Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

16 Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.

17 How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b

18 Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

19 The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

20 Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

21 Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.

22 Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing

23 Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule

24 Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning

25 Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing

26 Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

27 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000

28 An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.

29 Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification

30 What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

31 Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

32 Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.

33 Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.

34 Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

35 A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.

36 In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

37 The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.

38 Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

39 Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.

40 A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.



1 A
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 D
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 C
27 C
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 D
37 C
38 D
39 D
40 B

1. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004

The boundary values for testing this field are

a. 0,1900,2004,2005

b. 1900, 2004

c. 1899,1900,2004,2005

d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005




2. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?

a. System testing

b. Usability testing

c. Performance testing

d. Both b & c



3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?

a. Data tester

b. Boundary tester

c. Capture/Playback

d. Output comparator.



4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

a. Statement Coverage

b. Pole Coverage

c. Condition Coverage

d. Path Coverage



5. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?

a. Functionality

b. Usability

c. Supportability

d. Maintainability



6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data.

a. Stub

b. Driver

c. Proxy

d. None of the above



7. Boundary value testing

a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests

b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes

c. Tests combinations of input circumstances

d. Is used in white box testing strategy



8. Pick the best definition of quality

a. Quality is job one

b. Zero defects

c. Conformance to requirements

d. Work as designed



9. Fault Masking is

a. Error condition hiding another error condition

b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault

c. Masking a fault by developer

d. Masking a fault by a tester 



10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :

a. Lack of technical documentation

b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers

c. Lack of training

d. Lack of Objectivity



11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?

a. When the code is complete.

b. When the design is complete.

c. When the software requirements have been approved.

d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing



12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who

a. Takes minutes of the meeting

b. Mediates between people

c. Takes telephone calls

d. Writes the documents to be reviewed



13. Given the Following program

IF X < Y

THEN Statement 1;

ELSE IF Y >= Z

THEN Statement 2;

END



McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5



14. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -

…………

if (Condition 1)

then statement 1

else statement 2

fi

if (Condition 2)

then statement 3

fi

…………

a. 2 Test Cases

b. 3 Test Cases

c. 4 Test Cases

d. Not achievable



15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?

a. Requirements

b. Design

c. Code

d. Decision table



16. “How much testing is enough?”

a. This question is impossible to answer

b. This question is easy to answer

c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements

d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers



17. A common test technique during component test is

a. Statement and branch testing

b. Usability testing

c. Security testing

d. Performance testing



18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.

a. Missing Statements

b. Unused Branches

c. Dead Code

d. Unused Statement



19. Independent Verification & Validation is

a. Done by the Developer

b. Done by the Test Engineers

c. Done By Management

d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence 



20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?

a. Defects

b. Trends analysis

c. Test Effectiveness

d. Time Spent Testing

Answers


1 c

2 d

3 c 

4 b

5 c

6 b

7 b

8 c

9 a

10 d

11 c 

12 b

13 b

14 a
15 a

16 c

17 a

18 a

19 d

20 c
Hope this article helped you! Please feel free to comment!